waterfall's picture

waterfall

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My God, My God, why have you forsaken Me?

I've been contemplating this lately and wondering exactly why Jesus would have said this while on the cross.  It is recorded in only two of the Gospels (Mathew and Mark) and Wikipedia tells me that Peter also mentions it in a Diocetic form, "my power, my power, thou hast forsaken me?" 

I'm watching the drama of Haiti unfold and reading about their history and I'm thinking if any peoples had the right to say this, they do, but instead I'm hearing stories of  Haitians thanking God for their lives. I take it further and wonder if these would be words I would say upon my death?

Why do you think Jesus uttered these words? (if you believe he did)

Mathew 27:46

46About the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?"—which means, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

 

Mark 15:34

34And at the ninth hour Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?"—which means, "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"

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Mate's picture

Mate

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airclean

 

I can give you a list of dozens of scholars and historians if that would help you.

 

I cannot deliver the lectures I get at the Vancouver School of Thology and the scholars I speak of above have also been teachers under whom I have studied.

 

We can start with two excellent books by J. D. Drossan: "The Historical Jesuss" and "The Birth of Christianity".

 

Thanks to GordW.

 

Shalom

Mate

InannaWhimsey's picture

InannaWhimsey

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waterfall,

 

I guess what "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?" means depends on whether you follow the Aramaic primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Aramaic) or the Greek primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Greek).

 

Since the Greek primacy school seems to be where your phrase in question comes from, I'll just show what I see as an example of the Aramaic primacy school at work on your phrase in question:

 

http://www.alamoministries.com/content/english/Gospel_literature/Jesus_N...

 

You'll notice that here, the phrase in question has quite a different meaning.

 

(Myself, I tend to like languages that pun :3)

 

Just a Self-writing poem,

Inannawhimsey

waterfall's picture

waterfall

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InannaWhimsey, thankyou, I've never heard this before. I'm going to contemplate and check this out later in the day and I'll get back to those others that have also contributed. I'll probably have more questions about the wording you've contributed. If anyone else is familiar with this interpretation I'd be interested to hear more about the validity of it.

Waterfall

Arminius's picture

Arminius

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I think Jesus believed himself to be at-one with God, and thus beyond suffering.

 

This worked, for the most part. But when his suffering became unendurable, his godliness abandoned him and his humanness took over. He may have been surpised that his godliness had forsaken him in his hour of greatest need, and this was why he cried out the famous first line from Psalm 22.

 

In Luther's German translation of the Bible, this Psalm has the following foreword:

 

"A Psalm David's, singing of the hind who is hunted in the early morning."

InannaWhimsey's picture

InannaWhimsey

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waterfall wrote:

InannaWhimsey, thankyou, I've never heard this before. I'm going to contemplate and check this out later in the day and I'll get back to those others that have also contributed. I'll probably have more questions about the wording you've contributed. If anyone else is familiar with this interpretation I'd be interested to hear more about the validity of it.

Waterfall

 

You're welcome :3

 

I wanted to proffer it because I really would like to see some of the Real Biblical Scholars here sally forth on this notion :3

 

Just a Self-writing poem,

InannaWhimsey

blackbelt's picture

blackbelt

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InannaWhimsey wrote:

waterfall,

 

I guess what "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?" means depends on whether you follow the Aramaic primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Aramaic) or the Greek primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Greek).

 

Since the Greek primacy school seems to be where your phrase in question comes from, I'll just show what I see as an example of the Aramaic primacy school at work on your phrase in question:

 

http://www.alamoministries.com/content/english/Gospel_literature/Jesus_N...

 

You'll notice that here, the phrase in question has quite a different meaning.

 

(Myself, I tend to like languages that pun :3)

 

Just a Self-writing poem,

Inannawhimsey

have you seen who wrote that peice? tony alamo

oui's picture

oui

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waterfall wrote:

Beloved, I've also thought about the human/divinity aspect about Jesus, BUT does he forget for a moment that he IS God?

I think you are inserting your own belief into the text, and that belief does not fully fit there.  Its like trying to jam a jigsaw puzzle piece into the wrong place.  

 

Your belief leads to assumptions which leads to expectations, formulated entirely by you, for you.  When something is not met the way you expect, its distressing.  

Only you can control your reaction, whether it will produce harmony or distress for you.

 

waterfall wrote:

I expect we would have our moments, but doesn't this seem to suggest that even Jesus had his doubts? I'm not sure I like that and obviously I don't understand it or how God would contradict that he is "always there" and Jesus wouldn't know it.

In each gospel there are different accounts of what was said.

 

As has been said above, its very clear that the NT writers were intimately familiar with OT texts, and they also liberally copied from each other.  I think there was  a great desire to mould Jesus, after death, into a greater than life figure.  I think referencing and inserting OT text was a very convenient and effective way to do that. 

GordW's picture

GordW

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blackbelt wrote:

InannaWhimsey wrote:

waterfall,

 

I guess what "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?" means depends on whether you follow the Aramaic primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Aramaic) or the Greek primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Greek).

 

Since the Greek primacy school seems to be where your phrase in question comes from, I'll just show what I see as an example of the Aramaic primacy school at work on your phrase in question:

 

http://www.alamoministries.com/content/english/Gospel_literature/Jesus_N...

 

You'll notice that here, the phrase in question has quite a different meaning.

 

(Myself, I tend to like languages that pun :3)

 

Just a Self-writing poem,

Inannawhimsey

have you seen who wrote that peice? tony alamo

 

But is there really an Aramaic primacy school?   I have never heard of such a thong.  I have heard some suggestions that Matthew may have begun in Aramaic but cetainly not Luke and John.  What is the consensus of scholars?  THat is what counts in the end.

 

However I agree that Jesus may well not have said these words in HEbrew or Aramaic.  But that is because I think they are a literary device.  Nobody was standing at the cross taking notes

blackbelt's picture

blackbelt

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GordW wrote:

blackbelt wrote:

InannaWhimsey wrote:

waterfall,

 

I guess what "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani?" means depends on whether you follow the Aramaic primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Aramaic) or the Greek primacy school (the Biblical scholars who think that the Bible was 'originally' in Greek).

 

Since the Greek primacy school seems to be where your phrase in question comes from, I'll just show what I see as an example of the Aramaic primacy school at work on your phrase in question:

 

http://www.alamoministries.com/content/english/Gospel_literature/Jesus_N...

 

You'll notice that here, the phrase in question has quite a different meaning.

 

(Myself, I tend to like languages that pun :3)

 

Just a Self-writing poem,

Inannawhimsey

have you seen who wrote that peice? tony alamo

 

But is there really an Aramaic primacy school?   I have never heard of such a thong.  I have heard some suggestions that Matthew may have begun in Aramaic but cetainly not Luke and John.  What is the consensus of scholars?  THat is what counts in the end.

 

 

I dont know if there is , i was just making a comment on Tony Alamo

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